WookieeGunner
06-24-2011, 01:56 PM
So finally got a chance to play my first game last night and the following question came up. If I use Womanizer to activate a Belle that hasn't activated yet that turn, does she still get a normal activation. In other words is this a valid sequence:
1) Seamus activates and uses womanizer
2) Belle activates, moves up to a Death Marshall, and attacks
3) The Death Marshall attacks back
4) The Belle activates and attacks again
From reading the V2 card I believe that moving Step 1 so it is between Steps 3 and 4 is valid, but is the list above valid?
1) Seamus activates and uses womanizer
2) Belle activates, moves up to a Death Marshall, and attacks
3) The Death Marshall attacks back
4) The Belle activates and attacks again
From reading the V2 card I believe that moving Step 1 so it is between Steps 3 and 4 is valid, but is the list above valid?